I think there is no difference except that the first sounds more emphasized. But there is no difference in meaning. At this point «for why» isn’t even used in contexts where people are trying to sound archaic.
- Fruitcake is not a description I would use for anybody as its meaning might not be clear.
- If you are asking many similar questions of this type in a row, you may repeat the same construction (anaphora).
- I think there is no difference except that the first sounds more emphasized.
The answer may be connected to the expression «nutty as a fruitcake.» The two expressions that are idiomatic in this context are «why» or «for what reason», with the former being the preferred option. I have flunked the exam, that is why I am attending coaching classes. I have flunked the exam, which is why I am attending coaching classes. Usual (pronounced /ˈjuː.ʒu.əl/ as in you) begins with a consonant sound and, as such, it should be preceded by a not an.
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It would not surprise me if «fruitcake» in the sense of «crazy» originated in the longer form «nutty as a fruitcake,» where the tell-tale insignia of insanity were the nuts. In your example, however, «I have flunked the exam, that is why I am attending coaching classes» is a comma-splice. Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers.
Eliminating ‘that’ before ‘Bob’ would seem to be more in context with the criticism of the way Bob sounds. Can you please explain to me the difference in meaning between these two questions? It’s because the ‹l› was never really there in any historical pronunciation of English.
It is simpler to understand in terms of what is going on. In the second case, the same response, using ‘would’ is still standard English. It expresses a sort of shocked or appalled disbelief. Or they might have said ‘how could you have done that?
«For why» (also hyphenated or written as one word) meaning «why» as a direct interrogative was used in Old and Middle English (see the MED’s entry), but it became obsolete sometime around the year 1500. Other senses of the expression (for example, it was used as a conjunction meaning «because») gradually over time all dropped out of use, so the word is completely obsolete and is marked as such by the OED. I believe the usage depends on what the word sounds like it starts with. For example, «an homage,» since the «h» is not pronounced.
And these are nouns that could make sense with a Why relative pronoun;try it, if you dare, with nouns that couldn’t, like rock, salamander, or durability. «why» can be compared to an old Latin form qui, an ablative form, meaning how. Today»why» is used as a question word to ask the reason or purpose of something.
We’ve just gotten used to always seeing it at the start of a question, but it’s really there to draw attention.
Latin and ancient Greek verbs had special modes, subjunctive and optative (known for these two languages as ‘moods’ along with the – to us – more common ‘indicative’ mood), to express things as not actual in some way. English does not have these. It has, instead a modal version of the auxiliary, would, or sometimes could.
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The reason why is an interesting one, and worth answering. Wikipedia has more on this. Pinning slang down to a certain origin is next to impossible. Fruitcake is not a description I would use for anybody as its meaning might not be clear. A person easily influenced. An instructor whose course is not exacting.
Why is a strange person called a fruitcake?
A relative clause provides additional information about the noun it describes, but it may be considered relevant or irrelevant to the overall point of the sentence. In other words, a restrictive relative clause, which often begins with that, is usually considered essential or restrictive. Relative clauses beginning with which may contain non-essential information and would be considered non-restrictive. That inauspicious occurrence puts «nutty as a fruitcake» very close to the earliest days of «nuts» as slang term for «crazy.» I haven’t found any examples of «So-and-so is a fruitcake» (meaning a crazy person) of comparable age.
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- Fruitcake is an insulting word for someone who you think is strange or crazy (the Macmillan Dictionary).
- It is simpler to understand in terms of what is going on.
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- There is no «future tense» in English, no matter what you’ve been told in school, since all modals can refer to any time — will is another modal auxiliary and behaves like the rest of them).
A good fellow; a trump. A girl whose acquaintance is easy to make, 8. A tag which has been removed by a sophomore from a freshman’s shirt. Fruitcake is an insulting word for someone who you think is strange or crazy (the Macmillan Dictionary). This answer is not in terms of the more conventional notion of ‘first’, ‘second’ etc conditionals.
Is it ‘a usual’ or ‘an usual’? Why? duplicate
But the two have had a somewhat complicated relationship in the vocabulary of a hostile outside world. The answer depends on what exactly you are trying to express. The key thing to have in mind it the difference between expressing something as ‘actual’ and expressing something as potential, doubtful or at least not certain.
‘, which brings with it a sense of rebuke, as in «I thought I knew you better than that.» As far as I know, “That’s the reason I…” would still be grammatically correct, but I can’t find anything stating one way or the other. There are more, but you get the idea. Sometimes we use variants to freshen up our writing, or avoid variance to hammer home a repetitive point. If you are asking many similar questions of this type in a row, you may repeat the same construction (anaphora). But usually you’re why is it called fiat money not wielding a rhetorical jackhammer, so variation is the way to go to keep your prose from getting dull.
One complication is when words are pronounced differently in British and American English. For example, the word for a certain kind of plant is pronounced “erb” in American English and “herb” in British English. So the proper form in America is an erb, and the proper form in Britain is a herb. In the rare cases where this is a problem, use the form that will be expected in your country or by the majority of your readers.